Let $f(x) = \begin{vmatrix} \cos x & \sin x & \cos x \\ \cos 2x & \sin 2x & 2\cos 2x \\ \cos 3x & \sin 3x & 3\cos 3x \end{vmatrix}$. Then $f'\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = $

  • A
    $0$
  • B
    $-12$
  • C
    $4$
  • D
    $12$

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If the ranks of the matrices $A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 1 \\ 2 & 1 & 2 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$ and $B = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ 2 & 4 & 6 & -8 \end{bmatrix}$ are $r_1$ and $r_2$ respectively,then $r_1 - r_2 =$

If $f(x) = \begin{vmatrix} 1 + \sin x + \sin 2x + \sin 3x & \frac{3 + \sin 2x}{2} & \frac{-2 + \sin 3x}{3} \\ 3 + 4 \sin x & \frac{3}{2} & \frac{4}{3} \sin x \\ 1 + \sin x & \frac{1}{2} \sin x & \frac{1}{3} \end{vmatrix}$, then $\int_0^{\pi / 2} (f(x) + f^{\prime}(x)) dx =$

The number of real values of $x$ at which the function $f(x) = \left| \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & |x| & x^2 \\ 1 & |x-1| & (x-1)^2 \\ 1 & |x-2| & (x-2)^2 \end{array} \right|$ is not differentiable is

If $f(x) = \left| \begin{array}{ccc} 2 \cos x & 1 & 0 \\ x - \frac{\pi}{2} & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x \end{array} \right|$, then $f^{\prime}(\pi)$ is equal to

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